Landmark Baptist

Philippians 3:6 - Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless.

In what way was Paul blameless concerning the righteousness in the law?

Rlvaughn wrote:In what way was Paul blameless concerning the righteousness in the law?

Philippians 3:

3 For we are the circumcision, which worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.

"We have no confidence in the flesh." (speaking of the group)

4 Though I might also have confidence in the flesh. If any other man thinketh that he hath whereof he might trust in the flesh, I more:

"However, I may [still] have confidence in the flesh." (since) "I have more cause to trust in the flesh than anyone..."

5 Circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew of the Hebrews; as touching the law, a Pharisee; 6 Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless.

"My life was the epitome of righteousness according to the flesh." (that is, the law)

7 But what things were gain to me, those I counted loss for Christ. 8 Yea doubtless, and I count all things but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ, 9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

In verses 5-6, I believe Paul is making a present-time assessment of "his former self", but with a past-time perspective:

"With regard to the law - I went the maximum distance - I was a Pharisee."
"With regard to zeal (for the law) - I was supremely devoted - I persecuted the church."
"With regard to righteousness (in the keeping of the law) - I was beyond reproach - I was blameless."

In each case, I believe his intent is to indicate the extent to which he took it...

I don't believe that scripture is telling us that Paul was actually blameless...

I don't believe that Paul actually thought (at the time he wrote the epistle) that he was blameless...

I believe that Paul was describing "the way he now thinks about the way he used to think about himself"...

Or something like that...

My two cents...

Brother Vaughn,

I'm not sure exactly how to define what Paul meant by blameless. I always supposed he simply meant that he obeyed the law in an outward way as much as was humanly possible and in such a way that other mean would have considered him a righteous man. One thing we can say for certain, he did not men that he was blameless in God's sight when judged by the law, because he wrote in Romans:

Paul wrote:Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.

Mark Osgatharp
Wynne, Arkansas