Landmark Baptist

We are studying through the Bible in our S.S. class, and in our text this morning, I came across a rather confusing. We were on the story of Deborah and Barak. Is Hobab the son of Jethro or is he Jethro, or what? I will give a few of the relevant verses and allow someone to respond. This may be a Hebrew question is why I posted it on here. Thanx in advance for responding.

"Now Heber the Kenite, which was of the children of Hobab the father-in-law of Moses, had severed himself from the Kenites, and pitched his tent unto the plain of Zaanaim, which is by Kedesh." (Judges 4:11)

"And Moses said unto Hobab, the son of Raguel the Midianite, Moses' father-in-law, We are journeying unto the place of which the LORD said, I will give it you: Come thou with us, and we will do thee good: for the LORD hath spoken good concerning Israel." (Numbers 10:29)

"Now the priest of Midian had seven daughters: and they came and drew water, adn filled the troughs to water their father's flock. And the shepherds came and drove them away: but Moses stood up and helped them, and watered their flock. And when they came to Reuel their father, he said, How is it that ye are come so soon today? And they said, An Egyptian delivered us out of the hand of the shepherds, and also drew water enough for us, and watered the flock. And he said unto his daughters, And where is he? why is it that ye have left the man? call him, that he may eat bread. And Moses was content to dwell with the man: and he gave Moses Zipporah his daughter...Now Moses kept the flock of Jethro his father-in-law, the priest of Midian: and he led the flock to the backside of the desert, and came to the mountain of God, even to Horeb." (Exodus 2:16-21;3:1)

I am not a Hebrew scholar. Your question sparked interest so I did some reaearch focusing on the term "in-law" in the Hebrew language. Chothen is the Hebrew word translated "father in-law" in Judges 4:11 and Ex. 3:1. The same word is translated "brother in-law" in Genesis 19:14 And Lot went out, and spake unto his sons in law, which married his daughters, and said, Up, get you out of this place; for the LORD will destroy this city. But he seemed as one that mocked unto his sons in law.

It seems to be a general term for a relative by marriage, and the connection only in which it is used would determine its precise meaning. It is very possible that Reuel was now dead, it being forty years since Moses came to Midian; that Jethro was his son, and had succeeded him in his office of prince and priest of Midian; that Zipporah was the sister of Jethro; and that consequently the word חתן chothen should be translated brother-in-law in this place.

The same would possibly be true in Judges 4:11 where Hobab is referred to as "father in-law" but was really only a relative by marriage in some capacity.

Let me know what you think.

Tom Dever

I'm still searching out what you are saying, Bro. Dever, but thanks for your help and from what I see, it may perhaps make sense. So you are saying that perhaps that Jethro and Hobab are one and the same man? So are you also saying then that "Moses' father-in-law" in Numbers 10:29 could refer to Hobab rather than Raguel? I read in one commentary that father-in-law could refer to Moses' brother-in-law if Moses' father-in-law died and his brother-in-law took over as prince and priest of the family. What do you think about that idea? Keep up the discussion.

I do not think that they were the same but that they were relatives in some capacity through marriage. If they were somehow the same Jethro is very old at the time of the events in Judges. From a time line the events in Judges took place well after Moses had died and Isreal had gone into the land of promise and conquered the land. So it would seem almost impossible for them to be the same. The Hebrew word implies a relative by marriage. It is difficult to say in what way they are related: brother in law, uncle - nephew, etc.

Tom Dever