Landmark Baptist

Sorry for the transliterations.

I think I have heard too much "made" of the differences between these two Greek words.

According to the context, at times, either one will fit. (notwithstanding that I realize God's Word is inspired, which has nothing to do with the issue here)

Is there more brought out (by ones teaching) in certain texts than should be?

Examples:
1) John 21
2) "agape" is God's kind of love

Thanks,
Joe

Brother Looney,

I think that you are exactly right. If you look at the words agape and phileo in the contexts in which they are used, they are basically interchangeable.

Also, considering that Jesus said that the Pharisees love [agape] one another for what they can get out of one another, the idea that agape is somehow godly or unselfish love is totally indefensible.

Mark Osgatharp

There is a difference between the two words or else they would not exist as separate words especially when in context they are used to distinguish between level or degree of emotional attachment as in John 21. I do not subscribe to the teaching that agape is reserved to high, godly love, but it does denote a greater degree of attachment that phileo.

cbut1 wrote:

W. A. Dillard wrote:There is a difference between the two words or else they would not exist as separate words especially when in context they are used to distinguish between level or degree of emotional attachment as in John 21. I do not subscribe to the teaching that agape is reserved to high, godly love, but it does denote a greater degree of attachment that phileo.

Would you agree with my brief description in my post above?

Yes.

Perhaps one thing people miss when they emphasize that "agapao" and "phileo" are two different words is that there is semantic overlap. So while they can have different meanings/connotations, they can also mean the same thing -- which is determined by context. The problem many of us have is that we are not familiar enough with the Greek language to pick up on the similarities and differences as we would in our native tongue. One thing that is helpful to see the "overlap" is to note verses in John uses the two interchangeably. For example, describing John as the disciple who Jesus loved, both phileo and agapao are used.

Also it is interesting to notice in John 21:17, it is written that Jesus said unto Peter the third time "lovest thou me?" Now did He ask do you love me godly twice and do you love brotherly me once, or did He ask the same question three times using a different choice of words?

D. A. Carson discusses the usage in John 21:15-17 in his book Exegetical Fallacies, which I recommend.