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What is a "Christian"

The Biblical significance of the English / Greek / Hebrew usage of words.
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What is a "Christian"

Postby W. A. Dillard on 2008 Jan 05 Sat 6:00 am

In Acts Chapter Eleven, the scriptures state that the followers of Jesus, often referred to as followers of "that way" were first called "Christians" at Antioch. Would anyone like to venture a guess as to why?
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Postby W. A. Dillard on 2008 Jan 19 Sat 8:32 am

O.K. So you knew I would tell you sooner or later. What I get from commentaries and others who do not know is that this term was used derogatorily; hence, it was "put down" or negative term. I find no evidence of that.
What makes sense to me is that these people who spoke Greek knew exactly what they were saying when they call the disciples "Christians."
"Christ" must be added to "Baptize" and other Greek terms that the translators choose to transliterate rather than translate. Consequently, the room for misunderstandings and diversities of opinion.
"Christ" in Greek is exactly the same in meaning as "Messiah" in Hebrew. Both terms translate into English as "anointed." If the English reader will supply "anointed" when reading Messiah or Christ he will more easily understand the sense of what is being conveyed.
Now back to the context. Jesus is the "Christ", the anointed one. He is the head of the body. Since the head was anointed, it is appropriate that the body also be anointed. Such anointing occurred at Pentecost on the first New Testament Church. The citizens in and around Antioch recognized this anointing on the church and therefore called them
"Christ-ians" or annointed ones.
If one follows this line of thinking it appears that a great deal of restriction is placed on the term "Christian" as it is commonly used in today's society. It seems most everyone claims to be a "Christian" regardless of what (if anything) he believes. Futhermore, many Baptists would say that anyone is a "Christian" who professes faith in Jesus as his personal Savior. However, if the sense of context is followed, it appears that one is a "Christian" who has been saved, scripturally baptized, and is participating in the anointing of the Holy Spirit that resides on the church and has since Pentecost. Where would this line of thinking be wrong . . . if it is?
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Postby remove_not on 2008 Jan 19 Sat 5:31 pm

Bro. Dillard,

I appreciate your closing statement and wonder how many Baptists actually teach this. I have always believed that the word was originally used in derision, but regardless, it identifies one with a New Testament Church (first used of those members of the church in Antioch). If indeed Christians exist, they are people who have been saved, scripturally baptized, fellowshipped into a New Testament Church, and are faithfully serving the One for Whom they were named after. Of course, the other point (which does sound plausable) will require more study.
remove_not
 

Postby W. A. Dillard on 2008 Mar 08 Sat 2:12 pm

Wow! Cbut1:

That information is just great! You don't know how thrilled I am to learn of your understanding. I know you have spent a lot of time in the Word, brother. Not just a lot of time, but a lot of quality time with the Spirit's help in coaleasing so many parts of the Word. Keep it up!
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Postby richhamlin on 2008 Aug 17 Sun 1:49 pm

Dr. Dillard,

I realize this thread has been innactive for a while, but I just noticed it and thought of a couple of things. It seems obvious that the term “Christian” was not invented by the followers of Christ, but is an expression coined to designate His followers. A.T. Robertson points out that the word is of the exact same construction as “Herodians” in Matthew 22:16 where it means “follower of Herod.” They did the same thing with Caesar, although the word they coined is not used in scripture. As for the unbelieving masses, it is difficult for me to think that those who scorned the Anointed Son of God would have given any credence to anointed followers, church members or not.

Like the word “Christian,” the word “anointed” is not often found in the New Testament. It is used several times in reference to the anointing of Christ, and only once for sure that I know of where His followers are under discussion:

2 Corinthians 1:19 For the Son of God, Jesus Christ, who was preached among you by us, even by me and Silvanus and Timotheus, was not yea and nay, but in him was yea.
20 For all the promises of God in him are yea, and in him Amen, unto the glory of God by us.
21 Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God;
22 Who hath also sealed us, and given the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts.

The promises of God are in Christ, yes and amen, to the glory of God. The same God has established us in Christ, and because we are established in Christ He has anointed us, sealed us, and given us the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts. Based on previous discussions, the effort will no doubt be made to confine this passage to something obtained through baptism, but frankly, I would expect any Baptist to recoil in horror from saying that God establishes us in Christ by water baptism. But even if it were theologically allowable, it still would not be textually possible because all four of these things are particularly identified as the work of God on our behalf – not our own works. We are created by God in Christ Jesus UNTO good works, not BECAUSE OF good works:

Ephesians 2:8-10 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

Rich
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