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Translation Scrutiny

The Biblical significance of the English / Greek / Hebrew usage of words.
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Translation Scrutiny

Postby desertpreacher77 on 2008 Aug 27 Wed 2:42 pm

I need help. I am studying out the Bible Translation issue. Let me start by saying, I use the KJV. I also use the NASB but, only preach/teach from the KJV, so I am not trying to defend a personal stand on modern translations or for a particular translation I use. I am trying to arm myself with information.

All of the books I have scrutinizing the modern translations, compare all other translations to the KJV. That isn't good enough for me. I want to compare them to the Greek Text. While I am NOT a Greek scholar, I am able to read the words in the Greek, and have reference material to find the root words and meanings.

When comparing each verse that is given as an example in these books to "prove" the fallacy of the modern translations to the Greek, I find they are correct to the Greek. Example:
In New Age Bible Versions by G.A. Riplinger, scrutiny is given to 2 Peter 1:21; stating that the modern translations omit "holy" from ...."holy men of God spake as they were moved" (kjv). But, in the Greek (Trinitarian) the word "holy" is not given.

I have found this to be the case time and time again. The arguments given are unfounded when comparing them to the Greek (Trinitarian).

Am I using the wrong Greek text or have we manufactured the KJV only issue to have something to bark about? or is my research too shallow to really find the issue?

Please help.
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Re: Translation Scrutiny

Postby remove_not on 2008 Aug 27 Wed 3:08 pm

desertpreacher77 wrote:In New Age Bible Versions by G.A. Riplinger, scrutiny is given to 2 Peter 1:21; stating that the modern translations omit "holy" from ...."holy men of God spake as they were moved" (kjv). But, in the Greek (Trinitarian) the word "holy" is not given.

Am I using the wrong Greek text or have we manufactured the KJV only issue to have something to bark about?


I assume by "Trinitarian" you mean the Trinitarian Bible Society's Textus Receptus (in which case you are using the correct text). The phrase "holy men of God" in the KJV is translated from "αγιοι Θεου ανθρωποι" in the Textus Receptus, which is 'holy' + 'of God' + 'men'.

Bro. Jerry
Last edited by remove_not on 2008 Aug 27 Wed 3:11 pm, edited 2 times in total.
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Re: Translation Scrutiny

Postby desertpreacher77 on 2008 Aug 27 Wed 3:11 pm

So maybe I need to wait till I've taken a few more years of Greek before I try this scrutinizing thing?
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Re: Translation Scrutiny

Postby remove_not on 2008 Aug 27 Wed 3:29 pm

desertpreacher77 wrote:All of the books I have scrutinizing the modern translations, compare all other translations to the KJV.

As far as books go, purchase "God Wrote Only One Bible" by Jasper James Ray.

Bro. Jerry
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Re: Translation Scrutiny

Postby J. L. Looney III on 2008 Aug 27 Wed 8:07 pm

The King James Only Controversy by James White is a good read. Good, salient points are brought out.
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Re: Translation Scrutiny

Postby richhamlin on 2008 Aug 28 Thu 4:14 am

Brother Desertpreacher,

There is an excellent website, www.kjvonly.org that is a great resource for those who are not KJV-onlyers. I think it does a great job of answering the arguments and dealing with the contradictions of the "logic" used to sustain the belief. I'm certainly not an expert in the languages, but I studied the issue while in Missouri because we were constantly receiving visitors who had been deeply influenced by the KJV-only teachings. It wasn't uncommon to see "1611" stickers on cars and belt buckles and bible covers -- KJV onlyism has been big business for a long time. As a result of this, I prepared a response to KJV-onlyism for our own church members that I would be glad to email to anyone interested.

Rich
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