I need help. I am studying out the Bible Translation issue. Let me start by saying, I use the KJV. I also use the NASB but, only preach/teach from the KJV, so I am not trying to defend a personal stand on modern translations or for a particular translation I use. I am trying to arm myself with information.
All of the books I have scrutinizing the modern translations, compare all other translations to the KJV. That isn't good enough for me. I want to compare them to the Greek Text. While I am NOT a Greek scholar, I am able to read the words in the Greek, and have reference material to find the root words and meanings.
When comparing each verse that is given as an example in these books to "prove" the fallacy of the modern translations to the Greek, I find they are correct to the Greek. Example:
In New Age Bible Versions by G.A. Riplinger, scrutiny is given to 2 Peter 1:21; stating that the modern translations omit "holy" from ...."holy men of God spake as they were moved" (kjv). But, in the Greek (Trinitarian) the word "holy" is not given.
I have found this to be the case time and time again. The arguments given are unfounded when comparing them to the Greek (Trinitarian).
Am I using the wrong Greek text or have we manufactured the KJV only issue to have something to bark about? or is my research too shallow to really find the issue?
Please help.
